Fire Support Coordinator Development Course (FSCDC) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• In an EFST, which option corresponds to the abbreviation for priority, altitude, and supporting position?
• Which METT component is most directly involved when weather affects fire planning?
• Which term describes a vulnerability that, if exploited, would cause the most damage to the enemy's resistance?
• Name common observer platforms used in FSCDC to observe and adjust fires.
• What is the delivery profile for a dumb bomb?
• Which are conditions to violate a No-Fire Area (NFA)?
• Which method of deconflicting aviation with surface fires includes lateral and altitude?
• Describe the Kill Box concept and its applicability to airspace management.
• Which plan focuses on counter-fire operations?
• Which plan is used to coordinate fire support?
• Which statement accurately contrasts CV and COG?
• In the operation plotting sequence labeled 'Plot 4 C', which term is listed as the initial step?
• HPT stands for what?
• NGF Report Pepper corresponds to which type of fire mission?
• After plotting, which action is listed next in the sequence?
• What does METT-TC stand for and why is it considered in fires planning?
• Which CAS Execution Template step is BDA?
• Which of the following are doctrinal nets of the FSCC?
• What are the six essential elements of a Call For Fire (CFF)?
• How many degrees are in a circle?
• What is the primary purpose of integrating Rules of Engagement (ROE) into fire planning?
• Tab B contains which plan?
• D3A stands for which sequence?
• If target priority changes, what steps should be taken?
• Which bombs are listed under 500 lb bombs?
• Which option best describes FSEM?
• Which agencies comprise the FSCC?
• Which CAS Execution Template step corresponds to Correlation?
• JTAC clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement is subject to which constraint?
• Illumination mark timing is which of the following?
• Time On Target (TOT) is defined as:
• Who do you coordinate cross-boundary fires with if you are at the Battalion level?
• Describe the process of Target Refinement from reconnaissance to engagement.
• What does 'C2 of fires' refer to and who typically holds it in an operation?
• Which of the following represents a correct example of FSCDC target types?
• Which item is explicitly labeled as non-standard among the listed artillery tactical missions?
• Which factors does the Targeting Board ensure alignment with during target selection?
• Is BCL only a USMC term?
• Which statement best describes the Fire Support Coordination Line (FSCL) in FSCMs?
• In targeting doctrine, which concept identifies points to attack to cause the most damage?
• In FSCDC, what is the role of reconnaissance data in Targeting Data?
• Which statement describes a Free Fire Area (FFA)?
• What is the IP distance to the target area?
• What is the primary purpose of FSCMs in target areas?
• The Fire Support Plan (FSP) serves primarily to:
• Which statement best describes how weather affects fires planning and adjustments?
• What does MEA stand for in combat assessment?
• Which CAS Execution Template step is Attack?
• In the CAS Execution Template, which step corresponds to Situation Update?
• Which of the following is a permissive FSCM?
• How does battlefield geometry influence fire planning?
• What is a 'Targeting Board' and what is its function?
• Which of the following is a restrictive FSCM?
• Which element in Fire Observation planning is essential to support accurate fire observation and adjustment?
• How do the levels 'suppress, neutralize, and destroy' guide fire effects in planning?
• In FSCDC planning, a Time-Sensitive Target (TST) is defined as what?
• The GURF Report is associated with which capability?
• Which bombs are listed under 2000 lb bombs?
• What event typically triggers a re-briefing of units and updates to the Fire Support Plan?
• What is the Target Synchronization Matrix (TSM) and its purpose?
• The phrase 'enemy bid for success' is most closely associated with which term?
• In the CAS Execution Template, which item is the first step?
• Which target type is primarily defined by its strategic value to the enemy?
• Which step in the CAS Execution Template is Readbacks?
• What is 'Fires deconfliction by airspace' and give an example.
• Joint Fires refer to which concept?
• Who typically holds the authority to command and control fires within an operation?
• Which statement best distinguishes adjust-fire from fire-for-effect in a fire plan?
• What does F2T2EA stand for?
• Which NGF report indicates Ammo Remaining?
• Which NGF report indicates a New Target?
• GFC stands for what in the Fire Support context?
• What is the role of SACC?
• What is a Critical Vulnerability (CV) in targeting?
• Why is the Civilian Considerations element of METT-TC important in fire planning?
• A continuous timeline extends from which range?
• HVT refers to what kind of target?
• After conducting coordination, which action follows?
• What restricts air space?
• Where are areas of operation for FSCL and FSCMs defined to support deconfliction?
• Define a No-Fire Area (NFA) and its effect on fire support.
• Which of the following best describes a Center of Gravity (COG) in military terms?
• Which of the following is an MCM used to designate the area of operation?
• Which of the following is NOT a C2 system used for fire support coordination?
• In the CAS Execution Template, which step establishes the initial Routing / Safety of Flight?
• What does TOT stand for in targeting terminology?
• What is a Target Area of Interest (TAI) and how is it used?
• Which of the following is a member of the FiST?
• What is the scheduling rate of fire for Mortars?
• Explain the concept of 'deconfliction' in fire support planning.
• NGF Report Pickle corresponds to which type of fire mission?
• What is the significance of a Collateral Damage Estimate (CDE) and how is it used?
• During Observation and Adjustment, which sequence indicates the target has been achieved?
• Which FSCM allows fires without pre-coordination within its area?
• Type 1 CAS requires JTAC to visually acquire which elements for each attack?
• What does the acronym MTC stand for in the context of a Call For Fire?
• What form is used for a JTAR?
• After clearing the mission, which action follows?
• Which set lists the three methods for initiating a fire plan?
• How many steps are in the IPB Process?
• What is the BP distance to the target?
• Scheduling rates of fire is associated with which plan?
• What are the categories of Offensive Air Support (OAS)?
• Center of Gravity (COG) is best described as:
• Target marking in CFF helps reduce:
• What is the purpose of a Fire Support Coordination Brief?
• Center of Gravity (COG) is best described as:
• Which sequence correctly expands to D3A?
• Type 2 CAS is used when JTAC is unable to visually acquire the aircraft at weapons release or unable to acquire the target. Which option matches this description?
• What are two common sources of Targeting Data used in FSCDC?
• During the Plan Phase of the FST 13 Step Process, which task is performed?
• Which option is an example of FSCC doctrinal nets?
• After consulting the attack guidance matrix, which action follows?
• Which statement best describes the difference between surveillance and reconnaissance in the targeting cycle?
• Target Location Error (TLE) is defined as?
• Which element of an EFST describes a targeting objective?
• What is an Observation Plan in FSCDC and what does it typically include?
• Which item listed is a Mission Coordination Measure (MCM)?
• A Counter-Battery (CB) mission is:
• Which EFST element describes defilade, concealment?
• What is the primary purpose of the Fire Support Coordinator (FSC) during an operation?
• FSEM is best described as a what?
• Which statement best describes a nonstandard timeline?
• What is the delivery profile for a PGM?
• What is the Fire Support Coordination Line (FSCL) used for?
• What is the Observation and Adjustment (O&A) process?
• Joint Fires are intended to support the Joint Force Commander’s:
• NGF Report Honey indicates which target status?
• NGF Report Candy indicates which asset status?
• In targeting decisions, how is risk to civilians assessed?
• Which bombs are listed under 1000 lb bombs?
• What is the duration of the ATO cycle?
• During a mission, how is a change in control handled?
• Appendix 17 contains which plan?
• Which types and methods of CAS Attacks are listed?
• What is the significance of range cards in indirect fire planning?
• How does 'target orientation' assist in CFF accuracy?
• A vulnerability that, if exploited, would cause the most damage to the enemy's resistance is called:
• Which is the fourth element of the F2T2EA sequence?
• WP mark timing is which of the following?
• Which NGF report indicates an Unfired Target?
• The term that defines the exact moment a round impacts the target is called what?
• What is a primary benefit of rehearsals in Fire Support operations?
• What is meant by a 'moving target' in target description and what planning considerations does it require?
• Which of the following is a FiST member?
• How is Close Air Support (CAS) integrated with ground fires in the FSCDC framework?
• Which option is NOT a FiST member?
• What does CDE stand for in combat assessment?
• Tab A contains which plan?
• The Category III Grid provides target location accuracy within how many meters?
• Which document governs naval surface support planning?
• Which CFF element provides the precise location of the target?
• An interrupted timeline is defined as which of the following?
• Which NGF report indicates Non scheduled fire mission?
• Category III Grid accuracy is approximately what distance?
• Which firing method allows delivering the intended effect with minimal subsequent adjustments?
• Which statement best describes the Method of Fire and Control (MTC) in a CFF?
• The Fire Support Plan (FSP) addresses deconfliction primarily to:
• Which timeline type may use any weird combination?
• What validates the FSEM?
• Can a THS do VDL?
• What information is typically included when reporting target location in a Call For Fire (CFF)?
• Which option best defines a Critical Vulnerability (CV)?
• Center of Gravity should be targeted to disrupt what aspect of the enemy?
• Which statement best describes the Fire Support Coordination Line's role in preventing fratricide?
• Which of the following is one of the four steps of the IPB Process?
• A nonstandard timeline is best described as which of the following?
• Which of the following is a C2 system mentioned?
• Which of the following sets lists target types used in FSCDC targeting?
• Which EFST element corresponds to 6400 mils firing capacity?
• The role of a Fire Support Team (FIST) during operations is:
• Which statement correctly lists the scheduling rates for Mortars, Artillery, and NSFS?
• In a dispersed operation, how should engagement priority be determined?
• How does a Free Fire Area (FFA) differ from an FSCL?
• Which term describes a weakness exploited to cause the enemy to fail their objective?
• Which describes an interrupted timeline?
• What is the role of observer platforms in observing and adjusting fires?
• Name three common Fire Support Coordination Measures (FSCMs).
• Why are rehearsals critical in Fire Support operations?
• In Target Refinement, what comes after prioritizing targets (HVT/HPT/TOO) for fires?
• In targeting, the Center of Gravity (COG) is best described as:
• In the CAS Execution Template, which step is labeled Game Plan?
• Which statement best describes the essential purpose of deconfliction during simultaneous fires?
• During the Execute Phase of the FST 13 Step Process, which action is performed?
• During the Orient Phase of the FST 13 Step Process, which task is performed?
• Why is target marking (smoke/illumination/laser) important in CFF?
• What is the primary purpose of a Fire Support Plan with respect to simultaneous fires?
• What are the six steps of the joint targeting cycle?
• Which of the following is a C2 system used for fire support coordination?
• Which option best defines a Critical Vulnerability (CV) in targeting?